"This group ended up taking 29% fewer sick days compared to the control group (IRR 0.71). Yet the study explicitly notes that there was no significant difference between groups regarding total sick days."
if you take 29% fewer sick days, how is there no significant difference between two groups regarding total sick days? Unless this is taking into account the entire year, not just the study period, in which case, the remedy works whilst using it, as backed by the numbers.
look at the readme https://github.com/eternity4719/HowToLiveBetter