35 pointsby surprisetalk7 hours ago16 comments
  • ngvrnd4 hours ago
    „Wovon man nicht sprechen kann, darüber muss man schweigen“

    but if the thing can be interacted with, it can usually be mapped and defined and then named. But there will always be things which do not have names, at least in mathematics -- think of the real numbers.

    • abnry3 hours ago
      I suppose if the number of nameable things is countable (because humans can only enumerate, and it is humans who name), then it trivially follows that some real numbers are unnameable. Which proves the existence of such entities.

      This reminds me of a YouTube video I watched this week titled "A counting argument for why mind comes before matter": https://youtu.be/AtduNjJV-6E?is=nBZ9ztZsyeoVhCj1

      The argument is something like the set of possible thoughts about physical objects is larger than the physical objects themselves. It feels similar in flavor to the idea of unameable objects.

      There's something special about a name. The name of the God of the Bible is special. Christians are to call upon _the name_ of the Lord. We pray, hallowed by _thy name_. It is somehow denotes the summary essence of the thing being named, even if it doesn't give specific details of its characteristics.

    • bryanlarsen3 hours ago
      "Unnameable" and "unnamed" are two different things, in my opinion. Are there real numbers that are unnameable or are those just unnamed?

      There are some that unnameable with my mathematical understanding, but that's not saying much.

      • amavect3 hours ago
        No surjective function exists from names to real numbers (diagonalization). With any naming scheme, some unnamed real numbers always remain.

        On the other hand, given any real number, I can name it. I'll run out of unique names, since no injective function exists from real numbers to names.

        So, some unnamed real numbers will always remain (non-constructively), I can make real numbers that escape a naming scheme (constructively), and no unnameable real numbers exist.

    • 4 hours ago
      undefined
  • BiraIgnacioan hour ago
    sounds like the paradox that _could_ illustrate Gödel's incompleteness theorems

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/G%C3%B6del's_incompleteness_th...

  • GPerson5 hours ago
    If we assume the real numbers exist, then perhaps the paradox resolves because there are uncountably many reals and only countably many nameable things, but then perhaps the paradox does not resolve because we assume ZFC is true and we can well order the reals, hence name the first unnameable real.
    • mark_something4 hours ago
      The reals can be ordered, just use x < y. I think you mean that if ZFC is true, we could enumerate unnameable reals (choose one with the axiom of choice, remove it, choose another one, etc.), but you could not enumerate them all. But it is true that you could get a "first" unnameable real.
      • pdonis4 hours ago
        > The reals can be ordered, just use x < y.

        That ordering is not a well-ordering, which is what the GP specified. A well ordering requires that every non-empty subset has a smallest element. That's not true for the reals ordered by x < y: for example, the set of all reals > 0 has no smallest element.

        No one has explicitly shown that the reals can be well ordered, but it's a consequence of the axiom of choice that every set can be well-ordered. So in ZFC there must be a well ordering of the reals, even though no one has found one. Issues like this are why not all mathematicians accept the axiom of choice.

        • simonh3 hours ago
          Not a mathematician, so this question may be a bit thick. I see the problem with the set of reals > 0, but is it perhaps that in this case > 0 is the problem and for sets specified as >= 0 it's fine because 0 is a nameable real and the smallest element. Obviously you can't just exclude certain expressions arbitrarily though, so I don't know how you could justify that mathematically.
          • luc43 hours ago
            We just used the standard ordering < to define the set, it has nothing to do with the candidate well-ordering. If that's confusing, consider the set { 10^-x | x \in N } instead. It also has no minimum element in the standard ordering.
          • GPerson3 hours ago
            A well ordering on a set is a total order such that all non empty subsets have a minimum element with respect to this order. The standard ordering of the reals is not a well ordering, but the axiom of choice is equivalent to the statement that all sets possess a well-ordering. A well-order of the reals would probably look pretty chaotic though.
  • lordnacho2 hours ago
    This reminds me of the 6 degrees of separation thing.

    People tell you that you can connect more or less everyone by 6 degrees. But what struck me was, for anyone you try this with, you know their names, so you've already restricted yourself in how far out someone can be.

  • gaoshan4 hours ago
    If you can't name it you can still describe it.

    But then by describing it you are committing it to a set of conditions this unnameable thing satisfies.

    But then if you go beyond a narrow interpretation of that paradox and accept that naming and describing are both accomplishing the same fundamental thing, that being committing a thing to a condition (like a name) or set of conditions (like a description), you do run into the same problem.

    Hmm, interesting. Now back to this E2E testing stuff I've been avoiding.

    • LanceH3 hours ago
      In mathematics, there are infinitely many "computable" numbers. That is, numbers which can be describe using any mathematics available. Then there are far more "non computable" numbers, which can't be described by anything finite.

      I think there is some analogy to be made here.

    • bwfan1234 hours ago
      Names are like variables in a function. you can name variables anything you want from a human understanding point of view (final cause), but the compiler doesnt care about that. The compiler only cares about the efficient cause of that variable in the sense of what it represents (stack/heap etc).
    • 4 hours ago
      undefined
  • svat2 hours ago
    Incidentally, it is a matter of some debate whether Bhartṛhari the philosopher and Bhartṛhari the poet are the same person or two (or more, in the case of the anthology of verses). Oral tradition holds them to be the same person, scholars have debated back and forth. I have a collection of the poems here: https://shreevatsa.net/bhartrhari/web/ (will clean it up someday)
  • snapcaster5 hours ago
    I'm open to the idea that some things are unnameable but would need an example :)
    • loa_in_5 hours ago
      I'll write you as soon as I can
  • Xcelerate3 hours ago
    Pretty sure ZFC proves such things exist (and that it also can’t pinpoint any individual instances of course). Now, whether syntactical “∃” in the formal language of set theory corresponds to the platonic existence of some “thing”, who knows.
  • Zhyl3 hours ago
    The Way that can be walked is not the eternal Way.

    The name that can be named is not the eternal name.

    -- Lao Tzu, Tao Te Ching

  • kranner5 hours ago
  • b4504 hours ago
    counterargument:

    1) let x be a thing

    2) I name x "Jeff"

    3) all things are nameable (from 1 and 2)

    another way to put this is that it's natural to take the paradox as a reductio.

    • amavect3 hours ago
      You proved that definable implies nameable, and also unnameable implies undefinable. Obviously true. However, the idea of undefinable real numbers closely resembles a modern version of the paradox. No surjective function exists from definitions to real numbers.

      Really, the blurb about "seems impossible to verify this by giving positive instances" contains the tension between constructive math and non-constructive math. Does an unnameable (and undefinable) thing actually exist? If a tree falls in a forest, but no one can hear it, does it make a sound?

      • onraglanroadan hour ago
        > No surjective function exists from definitions to real numbers.

        I'm not really up on maths so this is possibly a stupid question, but can't any real number be written as an ASCII string, which is basically an integer number, so there is a direct mapping there?

        Or is it because the ASCII number wouldn't be in order that makes the difference?

        Or is it that you can't write that mapping as a mathematical function perhaps?

        • onraglanroad4 minutes ago
          Actually, and perhaps sadly, I asked an LLM and I understand now.

          But perhaps that's not such a bad thing that I can get answers to my foolish questions!

    • miksteyp3 hours ago
      The problem with such sleight of hand counterargument is that you haven't even defined what "a thing" is nor "all things" are in this world. And such discussions will just come back to set theory, ZFC, axiom of choice and real numbers.
      • delecti2 hours ago
        That isn't a problem with the counterargument, because the "paradox" as-stated also uses the word "thing".

        For that matter, the paradox is self-resolving. By labeling the entities it is concerned with as "unnameable things", it has named them. As a collection, entities not otherwise named can be simply referred to as "Bhartrhari's things".

        • miksteyp25 minutes ago
          And this is why analytical philosophy should be kept out of mathematics - Some 18th century mathematician before Cantor
    • crimsonspy4 hours ago
      Jeff jeff jeff, jeff jeff jeff jeff! Jeff? Jeff.
  • curtisblaine4 hours ago
    How is it a paradox? Isn't this just a proof that there are many unnamed things, but no unnameable ones?
    • bwfan1234 hours ago
      > Isn't this just a proof that there are many unnamed things, but no unnameable ones?

      Where is it a proof that there are many unnamed things ? I could only see it as an argument that there are no "unnameable" things.

      • curtisblainean hour ago
        It depends how you define "named", but for example, not all the grain of sands you see on a beach are named (yes, they are named collectively, but not individually. If "collectively" is valid, then that's further proof that "unnameable" things can't exist, because they already have a collective name).
    • WillAdams4 hours ago
      Agreed.

      This is the stuff of magic and folklore, and neatly resolved by Ursula K. LeGuin in _A Wizard of Earthsea_.

  • ogogmad2 hours ago
    This reminds me of how (I think) Zen koans are designed to make no sense at all. They are designed to teach you the limits of words and language and pure thinking.
  • cyanydeez4 hours ago
    Sounds akin to the complexity inherent in cellular automata. We know via the rules how to mutate successive generations, but backwards propagation, algorithmic simplification, etc may exist but not traceable from any given ruleset.
  • aabhay2 hours ago
    > There are some things that are unnameable

    Like what?

    Oh wait…