I'm a little surprised, however, to see him here proselytizing for a particular side in the constructivism debate. I associate him more with what he has described as a "quasi empirical" approach to mathematics[0] where the adoption of new axioms (such as for example the axiom of choice) is justified by their resulting in new, interesting mathematics.
But here, it seems his goal is to arrive at a somewhat Platonic conclusion, that either the reals are valid numbers or (seemingly he prefers) not.
My lay and naive take would be: if you adopt these rules (this Formal Axiomatic System) then you can have Big Fun in the playground of ever more esoteric and complex infinite cardinals, or if you adopt this other FAS you get to discover which results can and can't be obtained under a strict constructivist regime, and whichever FAS you choose it's just the same process of choosing axioms and applying valid deductive steps to arrive at a result you find interesting, with no more "existence" implied than the thoroughly non-Platonic existence of a solution to a problem, which can be demonstrated by solving it: if you take such-and-such steps then such-and-such result will follow.
I suppose the point being made is that avoiding axioms which imply the "existence" of the reals is more useful for doing physics, but that seems non-obvious in a field which for the last 200 years has seemingly sought to progressively make more and more phenomena intelligible by means of differential equations from infinitesimal calculus!
0: see, for example: https://arxiv.org/pdf/math/0303352, 1.9 Is Mathematics Quasi-Empirical
Here's a great discussion on Curt Jaimungal's podcast:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=l7LvgvunVCM
And a good debate on the topic with Daniel Rubin, who takes the more orthodox position:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=edh5bbgSKqo
Wildberger has tons more on this topic on his own channel. His arguments are thought-provoking, even if you don't agree with them.
This isn't fair for what quantization means in reality, but I'm just pointing out that you don't have to introduce the real numbers to get physically meaningless quantities.
You want to say that the concept of half an inch lacks physical representation, but that isn't true. You can easily demonstrate it as the ratio between one inch and two feet, compared to the reference ratio between one inch and one foot.
dhosek is saying that in a quantized space, there are reals that cannot be demonstrated this way, and he is right, but the same thing is untrue of rationals.
("In a quantized space", by the way, just means that all measured quantities are necessarily integers. That causes all kinds of problems, but "lacking examples of arbitrary rational numbers" isn't one of them.)
You seem to have your units confused. Half an inch is a distance, while ratios, or comparisons of ratios, are all dimensionless scalars.
Classical geometry (a la Euclid) allows for constructing a lot of numbers. We get natural numbers pretty cheaply, negative integers through adding in a concept of directionality (zero is a bit of an imaginative leap which is why it was absent from Western mathematics for so long). Constructing arbitrary ratios is possible through similar triangles and square roots through right triangles, but some basic algebraic numbers like cube roots cannot be constructed with a ruler and straight edge (which raises the question of whether, in a quantized universe, whether irrational cube roots actually exist). Of course there’s no guarantee that the quantization is going to be uniform and we also have the ɣ factor of special relativity (1/sqrt(1-v²/c²)) which gives us a non-Euclidean space to complicate things, but it’s not clear that if you can find a value for 1 that allows you to get a measurement for every irrational number.
But when we say things like "the rationals are discrete" or "the computable numbers are discrete" these are very specific claims in the domain of measure theory, a theory which yields almost nothing of value except endless paradoxes and naval-gazing nonsense. Similarly when people say "the rationals are countable" and "the computable numbers are countable" this is taking for granted the Cantor notion of measuring cardinality by bijective correspondence, once again, a theory that yields nothing of value except endless paradoxes and naval-gazing nonsense.
In the practical sense the rational numbers are quite continuous -- between any two rational numbers there are an infinite (unbounded) number of rational numbers -- there's no notion of a "leap" the way there is with the integers. And any useful number can be approximated arbitrarily closely by rationals.
And for computable numbers there's even less of a gap. With rationals you can only approximate. But you can have a computable number that is exactly equal to the square root of 2, because a computable number is the algorithm by which you form arbitrarily close approximations. The square of that computable number is itself computable and is exactly equal to 2.
What do "real" numbers buy you? That is, what do you get for the trouble of building your formalism around numbers that are not computable? Basically nothing.
And if you're worried that sticking to the rationals and the computable numbers is too much of a concession to "physical reality", rest assured -- the rationals are just as unphysical as the real numbers because they are continuous already, and physics does not give us the power to measure the difference between two sufficiently precise rational numbers just as it barfs when you throw "real" numbers at it.
They're well-known and have a simpler implementation, and we are familiar with their quirks. There is a giant body of useful knowledge built up around standard real analysis. That doesn't really exist if you insist on using only computable numbers.
The computables are also more fiddly in many ways. Because equality is undecidable, you can't have discontinuous functions, you need to carry around error epsilons all over the place, and we lose useful tools like the Heine-Borel theorem, I think.
Try proving some results in PDE theory, and I think you might change your mind.
In general, I find clarity in thinking of numbers as the system that implements them, rather than as platonic objects with individual reality. What does using Old Boring tech buy you over using Shiny New Thing?
equality is always undecidable until you see the light of intuition. consider the rational number whose numerator is 0 if $theorem is true, and 1 if it is false, and whose denominator is 1.
It buys you the rigor of doing calculus, which buys you a lot of results that, while could be computed without calculus, would also be very difficult without it.
Doing calculus with computable numbers is totally possible and you get all the continuity you need. You need to drop the Lebesgue formulation of the integeral and either use a Reimann integral or the gauge integral (Henstock–Kurzweil) if you need a well-behaved integral in the face of very poorly-behaved functions, but in physical reality these don't exist and in abstract mathematics they are rarely of interest and the gauge integral is as robust as Lebesgue without all the measure theory nonsense.
Intuitionalist analysis and calculus are very well established; the only thing you can't do with them is nonsense like showing that integrating over the characteristic function of the rationals is zero (who cares) or showing that you can break a three dimensional sphere up into three pieces are reassemble them after translations and rotations into a larger sphere (obviously not true).
I guess the naive answer is completeness. Every Cauchy sequence converges to a member of the space. For example, quantum mechanics relies on the formalism of Hilbert space, defined as a complete inner product space. This gives us nice things like the spectral theorem for unbounded operators, without which we wouldn't be able to define probability (the Born rule) or time evolution (the operator exponential e^-iHt).
Can you formalize quantum mechanics using computable numbers? I don't actually know, but let's say yes. I assume it's more work with more edge cases, so I would ask the same question: what do you get for the trouble of building a formalism around computable numbers?
> But when we say things like "the rationals are discrete"
In the usual topology they are not?
> In the practical sense the rational numbers are quite continuous -- between any two rational numbers there are an infinite (unbounded) number of rational numbers -- there's no notion of a "leap" the way there is with the integers.
This characterization captures neither the intuitive nor the formal definition of continuity. You are effectively saying that Q is dense in R, but this is insufficient to prove, for example, the intermediate value theorem.
> measure theory, a theory which yields almost nothing of value except endless paradoxes
Come on now. The usual definition of concepts as basic as areas is tethered to measure theory. We say it's "obvious" that the integral is the area under the curve (and it is: e.g. the Riemann integral is trivially the Peano-Jordan measure) but this only works because we're appealing to it. You can route around it, but let's not pretend we're doing it for no reason.
I can see the elegance of a purely intuitionistic construction, but the "usual" real numbers are much closer to how we intuitively (no pun intended) work with numbers.
The big Cantorian leap that we make is when we use the diagonal argument to argue that the rationals are countable. All the real construction techniques (Dedekind cuts or Cauchy sequences) effectively only yield the computable numbers, the real numbers outside of the computables are inherited from the diagonal argument rather than being foundational to the construction. I mean, this is trivially true because constructions are constructive.
I disagree that area is tethered to measure theory; I certainly learned about areas in geometry long before I ever heard of anything with measure theory. Measure theory exists to tie up some of the horrifying poorly behaved functions that increasingly wily mathematicians invented to break our notions of area and continuity. But we have better tools now for dealing with those that don't involve measure theory so there's no reason to ever hear the phrase "almost everywhere" or "subadditive" ever again.
To back it up to your closing and my main point -- the constructive numbers are way closer to the way we work with numbers because all numbers we ever deal with, even abstractly, fit this definition much better.
Again, I don't think your position is indefensible, but this doesn't strike me as particularly convincing. The usual definition of R is that there exists a unique ordered complete Archimedean field up to isomorphism. We get the kitchen sink from the least upper bound property. As a constructivist you're gonna say that I don't get to define R like that, but you can't pretend it's done for no reason or that it buys nothing.
> I certainly learned about areas in geometry
And how were they defined? In elementary geometry we just sweep the question under the rug, usually...
If you get to say that being able to articulate why the measure of Q is 0 is unimportant and uninteresting, then I get to claim that the supposed problems with the usual definitions are also unimportant!
Saying that the non-constructive world leads to worse problems is a respectable position. Pretending the usual way of doing things is completely arbitrary isn't very honest.
Approximate relative to what? All actual measurement is implicitly or explicitly approximate such as L = x meters +/- epsilon. There is no infinite precision by which to discount rational measures as "approximate" and thus "invalid" in any way.
>What do "real" numbers buy you? That is, what do you get for the trouble of building your formalism around numbers that are not computable? Basically nothing.
You "buy" all of mathematics which operates on the assumption of "infinite" precision. It is an abstraction necessary to prove theorems and relationships of math. Abstracting from precision isn't a denial that it exists, it is the assumption that I can ignore it or leave it undefined. This is the assumption that distinguishes math from physics/engineering. Mathematicians deal with abstract e or pi but in the real world pi=3.14 if you are tiling your patio and 3.14159265... or whatever is necessary to get to the moon.
pi and e and sqrt(2) are real numbers and not rational, to be sure. But they are computable! Computable just means that they are arbitrarily approximable. "approximate relative to what" is that whatever criteria defines the number. You can't represent the "true" value of a non-rational number in the rationals, but you can prove that the error of an approximation is (rationally) bounded above and below, and you can have another approximation with a tighter bound.
Rational numbers are already infinitely precise relative to other representations -- finite decimals are another representation that is functionally equivalent to the rationals, but even a simple rational like 1/3 does not have a finite decimal value.
You can prove all the interesting theorems with computable numbers and rational/decimal numbers. You don't need the real numbers because you can't name a real number that exists and is not computable, BY DEFINITION! No mathematical construction can define a real number that is not constructible. These numbers are useless and there's no reason to continue even in abstract mathematics to pretend that they are useful because we have the formalisms to ignore them.
However, I thought things like Chaitin's Constants (you could make one per programming language) are real numbers you can name but not compute. I think you could do this from any undecidable problem.
Of course there only a countable number of those Reals. And they still don't seem useful for much more than naval gazing.